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Discussion Starter #281
That depends on whether you're trying to prove a theory or a psychometric.
Are you saying that we're supposed to

1) Start with the assumption that the Grant hypothesis is correct without worrying about evidence
2) Come up with a test that shows a person's Grantian function stack
3) Split test takers into "experimental" and "control" groups (somehow)
4) If the results conflict with the hypothesis, then we throw away the results instead of the hypothesis

Even with a statistical approach, unless I'm mistaken function tests have none of that empirical validity.
Exactly. That's because they are written according to the definitions of the cognitive functions.
 

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Are you saying that we're supposed to

1) Start with the assumption that the Grant hypothesis is correct without worrying about evidence
2) Come up with a test that shows a person's Grantian function stack
3) Split test takers into "experimental" and "control" groups (somehow)
4) If the results conflict with the hypothesis, then we throw away the results instead of the hypothesis
Meanwhile you've been assuming that function tests are "correct" without any evidence or statistical significance. That's my problem with your ideas.

I'm not saying any of those things. Testing a psychoanalytic theory like that is currently essentially impossible, so while function tests don't have controls, they can't really do anything about it. That's why you take them with a grain of salt, rather than basing your entire understanding of the theory around them.

Exactly. That's because they are written according to the definitions of the cognitive functions.
The tests have eight metrics and there are four functions. That's a point of dissonance with the theory already.
 
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