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This may be a dumb question, but how can someone be for instance INTP, if they have a 1% thinking preference?

Wouldn't that mean they have a 99% feeling preference and make them INFP, and if not, does it mean one uses thinking function at 1% capacity and are a blank slate the rest of the time?

Would that mean they're apathetic or undecided on their beliefs or just not a very passionate person so there's nothing to have an opinion about?

Could someone correct the flaw in my logic in very basic language?
 

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What it means is that the middle of the F/T dimension would be "0". 1% means that they just about prefer thinking over feeling. (51% T, 49% F)
 

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If 1% means 51/49, then what would 60% mean? Wouldn't that be over 100%?
By this backwards way of scoring it seems take 50% off, so 60 would become 10%. The other option would be 51-49 and you'd never be able to get a 1% preference. But this way you can't ever get higher than 50% which is why I suggest it's backwards.

Also if I had a 1% thinking preference, wouldn't classifying myself as INTP be somewhat meaningless?
I would go even further and say that as an INTP is Ti primarily you should display a stronger preference on the F/T dichotomy than on the N/S one. But that would require a good test and a taker with plenty of self knowledge, and already I don't like this test...

Most tests are bad anyway so believing them alone would indeed be meaningless even if you scored 90% on each letter. Have a read, get into some conflicts and see what annoys you and you'll have a better idea what type you are than by trusting a test :happy:
 

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This may be a dumb question, but how can someone be for instance INTP, if they have a 1% thinking preference?

Wouldn't that mean they have a 99% feeling preference and make them INFP, and if not, does it mean one uses thinking function at 1% capacity and are a blank slate the rest of the time?

Would that mean they're apathetic or undecided on their beliefs or just not a very passionate person so there's nothing to have an opinion about?

Could someone correct the flaw in my logic in very basic language?
The % is not for strength of preference, but for consistency of answers.
Basically, 50,5% of your overall answers is consistent with a thinking preference.
MBTI doesn't have scales as it is a type indicator for Jung's "psychological types". Also, it doesn't have scales either as it defines binary categories and not a degree of preference.
It all makes sense when you add cognitive functions.

also: Dichotomy - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
 

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Means mild preference/tendancey towards thinking. Everyone thinks, and everyone feels.

I can write my name both right handed, and left handed. But I am right handed, and always will be.
 
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