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Now there is an idea I have seen going around that suggests that IxxJs may confuse themselves as a P type because their first function is a perceiving function, or IxxPs ay confuse themselves as J types because they lead with a Judging function.

Now how valid is this? Who was the expert in the field that found through studies this idea to be true often enough to make mention of this? (I'm not looking for opinions of "yeah it's legit because I score type IxxP but really I'm a Pi Dom")

Secondly, if someone was taking a dichotomy test (such as the official MBTI) why would a test be written for someone who is Ji Dom to score as a J type? Would it not be written in such a way that an IxxP will score as an IxxP?

Thirdly, why wouldn't someone who does identifies with a J trait not be a Judging type?
 

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Now there is an idea I have seen going around that suggests that IxxJs may confuse themselves as a P type because their first function is a perceiving function, or IxxPs ay confuse themselves as J types because they lead with a Judging function.
Uh...from what you've written here alone, that just sounds like confusion on what the four-letter label indicates.

If you mean why IPs and IJs generally tend to mistype as the other, I seem to vaguely recall some arguments being made that combinations of functions can look like other functions, in addition to people confusing functions to begin with.

Secondly, if someone was taking a dichotomy test (such as the official MBTI) why would a test be written for someone who is Ji Dom to score as a J type? Would it not be written in such a way that an IxxP will score as an IxxP?
I'm not sure what you're asking here. Are you implying that the tests are deliberately made to mistype people? From what I gather people tend to mistype on tests because of a multitude of factors that include things like people answering in accordance to a more idealized perception of themselves and/or their mood, tests generally being limited on what they can determine about an individual's personality, and the testmakers themselves seeming to have fashioned the questions and answers based on inaccurate assumptions about the functions.

Thirdly, why wouldn't someone who does identifies with a J trait not be a Judging type?
In MBTI at least (in Socionics the last letter does indicate whether the dominant function is J or P), the fourth letter is meant to signify how a person of the type primarily interacts with the object, i.e. which of the dominant and auxiliary functions is extraverted. So all Ps have an extraverted perceiving function as the dom or aux, and all Js have an extraverted judging function as the dom or aux.
 

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Now there is an idea I have seen going around that suggests that IxxJs may confuse themselves as a P type because their first function is a perceiving function, or IxxPs ay confuse themselves as J types because they lead with a Judging function.

Now how valid is this? Who was the expert in the field that found through studies this idea to be true often enough to make mention of this? (I'm not looking for opinions of "yeah it's legit because I score type IxxP but really I'm a Pi Dom")

Secondly, if someone was taking a dichotomy test (such as the official MBTI) why would a test be written for someone who is Ji Dom to score as a J type? Would it not be written in such a way that an IxxP will score as an IxxP?

Thirdly, why wouldn't someone who does identifies with a J trait not be a Judging type?
I don't believe there have been any studies demonstrating the claim, though I'd be interested to know how it would be tested in a study to begin with. Would you check how frequently introverts switch J/P and only J/P between reported and verified type vs. how frequently extraverts do? That seems to me to be one way you could theoretically do it... anyhow, I don't know if any studies have been done into the topic at all. I suspect it's little more than conjecture, one of those things that ensures that every incongruity can be explained away rather than given real consideration...

To the extent that the MBTI is supposed to reflect types with particular function stacks, the J/P questions largely are written so that Pi/Je types select J answers and Ji/Pe types select P answers - or, in other words, "an IxxP will score as an IxxP", at least theoretically. All J types are said to "prefer to use their Judging process in the outer world" (and analogously for P types), and the manner in which J and P are described is intended to reflect this.

There's no impediment to any type identifying with "traits" of any preference, so mere identification with a trait would simply suggest that's a trait where the person's specific preference is contrary to their overall preference (say, a person who prefers closure in decision-making but prefers perceiving). But I think the more pertinent question then becomes, "why would someone who identifies with more J traits than P traits not be a judging type?". If type is seen as our innate/natural predilections, then the argument might be that one might identify more with the opposite preference to their natural one because of their life circumstances pushing them to be different to "who they are" innately.

Provided you accept a model involving cognitive functions, I think the dilemma is this: how do Ji and Pi factor into J/P? Since, by the official model, Je must always pair with Pi (and Ji with Pe) at the dom/aux level, all descriptions of P types will be descriptions of Ji types (and all J types Pi types), which presumably means that, whilst J/P is specifically about how people "deal with the outer world", it simultaneously tells us how people deal with their inner world, since that follows necessarily. The argument that IJ and IP types may confuse J/P on account of their dominant function can't really sit with the view that J/P necessarily incorporates Ji into P and Pi into J - rather, the view there is that J taps into Ji as well as Je, and P into Pi as well as Pe, and thus introverts are more susceptible to mistype with respect to J/P, since their dominant function taps into the wrong one. Can that view be properly substantiated? As I said at the outset of this post, I'm not sure precisely how you would go about testing it, since you'd need a way to compare test score to what people's actual types are - the best approximation of that I can think of is comparing reported to verified type.

Of course, all of this is presupposing a link between functions and dichotomies that I think is inherently problematic - this thread proves an interesting discussion/debate on that topic, and the fact that J/P is said to affect the function stack so substantially is largely why it seems to be the dichotomy with the most complications and questions surrounding it (such as introverts potentially confusing their J/P preference on account of their dominant function). In general, I'm skeptical of any received wisdom about what things people supposedly might confuse for something else with regards to functions (since it seems just about anything can be hand-waved away using them), but - though it's not saying much - I think the arguments surrounding J/P for introverts probably have more merit than most such arguments...
 
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